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#1 |
Member
Join Date: Dec 2004
Location: Europe
Posts: 2,718
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It should be possible to determine if the marking is the marking Charles I used, if it is not exactly the same, it could have been made in India. This kind of markings are very often used by kings and queens, and I see no reason why this mar should not stand for king Charles I. Any other postulates
![]() I guess the seller must have been very pleased with the price. My bit would probably have been where the auction house started the bidding ![]() |
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#2 |
Arms Historian
Join Date: Dec 2004
Location: Route 66
Posts: 10,278
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Hi Brian,
Thank you so much for the outstanding explanation on that. I suspected this was your course but wanted to be sure, and now that you explain the perspective it makes perfect sense. Nicely done ![]() I cannot even imagine the prices being paid for these weapons these days!!Thats why I'm just a researcher!! ![]() Jens, I'm with you on the bidding level where my card would have hit the floor. I think your idea on the marking is on target, and perhaps we need to find other items used by Charles I that might reflect similar markings. All the best, Jim |
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