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Old 9th June 2005, 01:57 PM   #10
Jens Nordlunde
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It should be possible to determine if the marking is the marking Charles I used, if it is not exactly the same, it could have been made in India. This kind of markings are very often used by kings and queens, and I see no reason why this mar should not stand for king Charles I. Any other postulates?

I guess the seller must have been very pleased with the price. My bit would probably have been where the auction house started the bidding.
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