Thank you very much for your explanation in respect of nom-noman keris, Pak Ganja. An interesting, and I consider more or less accurate explanation of these keris, however it does not address the matter to which I was referring.
In earlier posts you had explained how the smoothing of a blade edge and general improvement of blade condition was an acceptable practice in Solo, but was considered to be unacceptable in Jogja.
On Sept 1, and directly following your explanation of the different attitudes which apply in respect of blade maintenance as carried out in Jogja and in Solo, Penangsang II asked this question:-
Pak Ganja,
Which one of these two schools - Solo & Yogja, follow the tradition of old schools of say, Mataram era? I believe that I read it somewhere that Sultan Agung's time was actually the keris golden era.
I understood Penangsang's question to relate to the matter which had come directly before the question, that is:- in the matter of blade maintenance, including the smoothing of the edges of a blade, which of the two schools of Jogja and Solo, follow the traditions of the older schools, for instance that tradition which applied during Mataram era?
Now, it could be that I totally misunderstood the question that Penangsang asked. Perhaps he was asking about how to classify a nom-noman blade, but although I have read and re-read your posts, and Penangsang II's posts several times, I can still only extract the interpretation that I have given it.
On Sept 1 you responded to Penangsang:-
Both "schools" follow most of the old tradition, and only different in certain aspects (sometimes totally different). In certain sense, Solo school is more modern.
Now, since Penangsang II had already used Mataram as his applicable era, then naturally your response must be read to refer to Mataram.
It is this exchange between you and Penangsang II that has caught my interest, and has generated my question to you:-
Pak Ganja, you tell us that "Both "schools" follow most of the old tradition---"
I find this to be intensely interesting information. In the sense of the question that generated your response we must accept "old" in this context as dating from the time of the Mataram Era. This era stretched over a considerable period, but if we date it from , for example, the time of Sultan Agung, we are talking circa 1640.
Is this how you intend your response to be understood, or are we looking at a slightly different date?
Whatever date we are taking as the date that would apply to the time of the "old schools", would you please be so kind as provide a reference?
Even if that reference is to come from an oral tradition, can you link that oral tradition to a person or source that predates, say, 1800?
As I said, perhaps I misunderstood what Penangsang II meant by his question.I would be the first to admit that asking and answering questions in a language other than one's own native language can be very difficult. However, if I did understand the intent of the question correctly, and perhaps PenangsangII would kind enough to clarify this matter, do you think that perhaps you, Pak Ganja, could provide an answer to my question?
Thank you.
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