Ethnographic Arms & Armour - View Single Post

Jim McDougall · 25th April 2016, 06:44 PM

You bring up excellent points Jens!
If a measure of sword blades prevalent in India, and in a set period (c.1570), was in place, then how would blades from external sources be placed in accord with the 'superstitious' or traditional standards?

I had not even thought of that factor given the vast volume of blades which entered Indian entrepots from Europe and other sources. If these standards were so rigidly applied, then would many of the blades have been dismissed because they fell outside required standards such as these measures?

It certainly does not seem so, but perhaps such things were not particularly adhered to in later times as colonial powers intervened and the convenience of available blades increased along with the situation of diminishing local industry.

25th April 2016, 06:44 PM	#4
Jim McDougall Arms Historian Join Date: Dec 2004 Location: Route 66 Posts: 10,137	You bring up excellent points Jens! If a measure of sword blades prevalent in India, and in a set period (c.1570), was in place, then how would blades from external sources be placed in accord with the 'superstitious' or traditional standards? I had not even thought of that factor given the vast volume of blades which entered Indian entrepots from Europe and other sources. If these standards were so rigidly applied, then would many of the blades have been dismissed because they fell outside required standards such as these measures? It certainly does not seem so, but perhaps such things were not particularly adhered to in later times as colonial powers intervened and the convenience of available blades increased along with the situation of diminishing local industry.