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Old 16th November 2006, 01:10 PM   #11
B.I
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Join Date: Jan 2005
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with my very limited knowledge of persian history, i am under the impression that persia was never truly conquered at any point in its history.
is this correct?
if so, then i am surprised at the lack of historical pieces pre-17thC and post 10thC in the museums. the museum pieces, whilst attractive, are not of higher quality than in many private collections outside persia.
is there a reason for this? (genuine question - am i missing something within the country's history that accounts for this lack of early steel weapons?)
there are many weapons in existance that cover this period, and i was hoping to see some early pieces still in persia (by early, i mean medieval and not before).

kirill, i think that your review was honest and thorough. whether others agree or disagree is meaningless, for it is a personal opinion and one offered up for discussion.
besides, after reading your review, manola has decided to buy the book. how can this possibly be a bad thing? the more people that buy the book, the more chance others will be published.
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